Talk:Tyndall effect

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What exactly does it mean to "scatter better"? 128.62.87.163 07:25, 16 January 2007 (UTC)

a better way of saying that would have been "scatter more", instead of scatter better. meaning that with an equivalent intensity, a blue light will have more scattering happening than a red one (and less light transmitted as a consequence) Palleas 13:33, 17 October 2007 (UTC)


How is this process different to Rayleigh Scattering? I'd heard of Rayleigh scattering before this, but I cannot see the difference, surely either there is a subtle distinction I've yet to notice or one is made obsolete by the other. fildon, 6th of March 2007

Same thing, Tyndall's work predates Rayleigh but Rayleigh explanation is more comprehensive and he gave it a theorical background, so credit goes generally to Rayleigh. - phe 00:54, 21 July 2007 (UTC)
Not the same thing: Tyndall effect refers to scattering within a medium containting suspended particles (i.e. colloids) such as dust. The sky would look blue even if there was no dust because of Rayleigh scattering - an interaction of light and the air molecules themselves. Jawshoeaw 04:54, 16 October 2007 (UTC)jawshoeaw

I agree with Jawshoeaw. The Rayleigh scattering, as I understand it is provoked by the medium absorbing a part of the incident light and re-emiting it by resonnance. Whereas the Tyndall effect does not happen with the medium itself, but with suspended particles in it. A way of perceiving that is that the rayleigh scattering is always present (as long as there is light), whereas the tyndal effect appears only when the medium as particles (dust, droplets...) in it Palleas 13:30, 17 October 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Nebula bank?

What is a nebula bank? I can't find this anywhere on the Internet - should it be removed? Jason7825 21:53, 5 August 2007 (UTC)

[edit] The Rayleigh Effect vs. The Tyndall Effect

Actually, it is the same thing. Only Rayleigh's study of the effect was more sufficient than Tyndall's. I believe the reason for this is because Rayleigh had more resources than Tyndall, but that does not discredit him. He still was more accurate in his findings. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 75.105.128.39 (talk) 00:33, 16 December 2007 (UTC)

No it is not the same thing. We're talking about the definition of Scientific Term, not the politics of who was credited with discovering what. That debate is relevant only to John Tyndall's contribution to Rayleigh scattering. For correct definitions of Tyndall Effect, see :