Talk:Isaiah 7:14
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[edit] Organization
This article needs better organization, particularly in the Christian Interpretation section. Nimrand 22:48, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
[edit] Very poorly written article
It only adds to the confusion. Not to mention that "almah" does not simply mean "young woman", but "maiden" or "damsel" and is derived from a root meaning "hidden, secret", which is reminiscent of the Biblical terminology "she knew not a man". The term used explicitly for "young woman" is "na'arah". The bottom line is, "Almah" NEVER refers to a woman who has been married and known for a fact to have been "deflowered". If the Almah has in fact conceived by natural means, it happened on the quiet with someone to whom she may have been engaged, but while still under the protective care of her family. The article could have used another way of showing that the phrase in question does not automatically imply a virgin birth, but it did not. Rather, it takes on the form of a sectarian polemic. The article is of poor quality, confusing, and lacking in credibility.—Preceding unsigned comment added by 205.68.95.65 (talk • contribs) 16:35, 31 October 2007
- This article is basically the result of extracting content from the article on Immanuel that didn't belong there. This topic is obviously controversial, so it is likely that some will disagree with it no matter what we do. But there is serious room for improvement for it as is. If you can provide sources for the information you just provided and can incorporate it into the article (or at least post the citation here so someone else can), it will no doubt help the article.Nimrand 23:16, 31 October 2007 (UTC)
- The Hebrew word na’arah refers to a woman just out of minority, not just any “young woman”. JCSalomon (talk) 21:27, 31 January 2008 (UTC)
[edit] Neutrality
I've tagged the "Hebrew Translation" section because the section is essentially arguing for the Jewish translation of the verse rather than maintaining a Neutral POV.Nimrand 22:10, 1 December 2007 (UTC)
- There should be some mention of the Septuagint rendering of this passage. Before Christianity arose, the Septuagint was widely used and accepted among Jews, yet it uses the unambiguous "parthenos" in this verse. Wesley (talk) 06:21, 1 January 2008 (UTC)
- If the article seems to be advocating the traditional Jewish interpretation, bear in mind the possibility that that translation is in fact the most accurate one. But by all means add scholarly evidence for the Christian version. JCSalomon (talk) 21:34, 31 January 2008 (UTC)
- I have no strong opinion on the accuracy of the Jewish interpretation. My point is that the accuracy of that translation/interpretation is clearly disputed, and so the section should provide a balanced presentation of all notable translations/interpretations, along with any arguments for/against such translations and interpretations. Nimrand (talk) 22:54, 5 February 2008 (UTC)

