Talk:Biblical inerrancy

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[edit] First bible Inerrant, but none of the others can be

Even if the first bible was inerrant (Its nolonger around) all the transalations/copies of that must have atleast one mistake, due it to being being done by man (Wont even start on the problems of languages at the time, or how many differences you can see in different versions of the smae bible today).

I believe it's obvious that the original author of this article was referring to the Bible in the original autographs, in stating that the Bible is inerrant. It has been shown again and again and again that any "mistakes" in the Bible are limited and do not affect doctrine. Since the article is discussing inerrancy, it stands to reason that the term must be defined and must be defined based on how it has been used over the centuries. Beyond all of this, it's doubtful that we would know if we DID possess any of the original autographs! To what would they be compared? --DeRuvo —Preceding unsigned comment added by 69.4.146.42 (talk) 19:59, 25 September 2007 (UTC)

So every other bible (In exsistance today or that will ever be made from ones in existance today) can not be Inerrant.

This is the point that should be made Origional one might be, but every other one can not be Inerrant! --203.87.127.18 10:59, 31 July 2007 (UTC)

What do you mean to achieve by making this point? Biblical inerrancy exists as a documented doctrinal position that can and has been written about encyclopaedically, whatever your personal opinion of it might be. --McGeddon 11:05, 31 July 2007 (UTC)

As may notice the opening paragraph say "origonal bible"! Not the bible, todays versions of the bible etc etc. I dont oppose it, as above just stating the fact that its irrelivant if the origonal bible was inerrant, as it doesnt exist today, and every copy today of a bible in use is atleast a copy of copy of one of the four earlyist translations, most have gone throught alot more editions and fixing up by mankind.

The copys of copys of copys of bibles that are used today are not irrerant, they can not be as man has been involved with the publishing of them. Its like saying the world use to be a cube when first created by god, So what it doesnt have any effect on us today, so if it was or was not it doesnt matter its irrelivant. Do you understand?--203.87.127.18 13:10, 31 July 2007 (UTC)

No comments on this, The fact the whole idea is totally impossible should be stated? or do some xtians have a problem with the fact every bible today must have mistakes due to man? Then again does anyone not biased xtian have a problem with the fact the bible must have mistakes?--203.192.92.73 11:52, 28 August 2007 (UTC)--203.192.92.73 11:52, 28 August 2007 (UTC)


The bible IS inerrant, and it doesn't matter that it was written through man, because it is the word of God and the word of God cannot be changed. All the "copies" of the bible, they're not copied from eachother,getting farther away from the true meaning. They're just different translations of the original bible. Simple as that. Get me?--Balletchicka09 01:26, 29 October 2007 (UTC)

I think you've mistaken the Bible for the Koran. The Koran quite specifically and clearly claims perfect transmission from God to Mohammed, and Mohammed explained the means of this transmission just to make sure his followers were clear on that point. The Bible, on the other hand, makes no such claim at any point. Rklawton 01:41, 29 October 2007 (UTC)
On scientific grounds the bible is most assuredly erroneous. Take for example Genesis 30: [1]. --Healyhatman (talk) 14:00, 21 May 2008 (UTC)

[edit] Biblical Inerrancy and Catholicism

Several paragraphs of Dei Verbum were included to get the point across as to the PRECISE position of the Catholic Church on the Bible. Your edit makes it appear that the Church holds a position other than the precise position. Maybe it can be paraphrased several years from now, but until then, it should be left there until Catholics understand the official position of the Church so they do not contribute to Biblical inerrant nonsense. If you object to its relevance at this time, please note that about one in six people in the world are Catholic. I do not mean to justify unnecessary additions (the complete document is on the Vatican's website, and I understand your concern about primary sources), but I think you get the point. JBogdan 01:20, 14 August 2006 (UTC)

I'm sorry, but quoting that much from a primary source IS against wikipedia policy. There is no argument there. I understand your concern about giving due weight to the majority Christian view (the Catholic POV), and that is a valid concern. However, the reason you stated for including it, to education Catholics about official policy, and calling Biblical inerrancy nonsense is clearly POV. Wikipedia's job is not to take sides and judge POV, and wikipedia's job is not to inform Catholics on Catholic doctrine. You may want to review some key policy points including Wikipedia:Don't include copies of primary sources and Wikipedia:What Wikipedia is not. Please, either select a more concise selection of your quote, cut it down by using ellipses to eliminating less important sentences, or better yet, paraphrase and summarize the content in an encyclopedic manner. Do you honestly think a huge quote from a primary souce is better for an encyclopedia than simply describing the position? Please consider Wikipedia:Guide to writing better articles and Wikipedia:The perfect article and note that none of them suggestion quoting primary sources to this extent. I have removed the quote again. The full text is already included this talk page, above. So you are welcome to try and rework it, summarize, cut it down, or whatever it takes to bring it up to wikipedia standards. --Andrew c 13:25, 14 August 2006 (UTC)
Another thing has come to mind why this quote is not helpful. Wikipedia:Explain jargon. It is very theologically dense, and Catholic specific in its language. To a layreader, is reading that going to help understanding, than having an encyclopedic overview of what the document is trying to say? Clearly not.--Andrew c 13:29, 14 August 2006 (UTC)

OK. That works. I will leave it the way you have it now. JBogdan 14:56, 15 August 2006 (UTC)

I'm not saying that this information doesn't belong here. I'll review the quote and the current content and see if I can't come up with something a bit better.--Andrew c 15:06, 15 August 2006 (UTC)


________________________

Again ... the discussion seems to be misplaced! Does Biblical Literalism sufficiently overlap with what is known as Literal Inerrancy to warrant merger into the same discussion. Of couse they do! Again, to assist, nobody has to resolve whether or not literal inerrancy is objective truth, nor does anyone have to accurately and with anguish of perfection, upon pains of torture and death by dissolving eyeballs and skin sloughed off, detail every single 'perspective' on this question. That can and should be done, with brevity and clarity in mind, IN THE MERGED SECTION ITSELF.

Now ... for a great exmaple if one looks at the passages of Isaiah that pertain to the prophecies of the Moshiach (Messiah) one runs into (at least by all appearances anyway) immediate problems with LITERAL inerrancy, for YESHUA did not embrace the ascetical life of honey and curds (so as to tell good from bad) but was to some (not I) a glutton and a drunkard, as discussed in the later and subsequent gospel accounts. And this no doubt called upon many to deeply ponder what Isaiah meant--for John the Baptist himself, after declaring "behold the lamb of God ...," sent word to Messiah, asking, "are you the one or are we to expect another"? He--John the Baptizer--expected one thing from the prophecies but was seeing something of a twist to those prophecies before his very eyes and, in turn, this led to his own crisis of faith while in prison. This is important for even the Jewish people today as yesterday deny and reject Yeshua as Moshiach because of what they believe to be an incomplete or (depending on scholar or writer or partisan)even total failure to meet Isaiah's prophecies. Thus ... literal inerrancy, for most of Judaica, precludes Messiah's having yet arrived! God Himself will absolutely resolve those questions for all minds, He has already done so for many hearts. We do not have to resolve who is right. God does that.

My point, then, is we can split infinitives until gnats become invisible specks to strained eyes, and for all wisdom and truth we all should, I suppose, but DOING SO is not relevant to whether or not the topics are PROPERLY MERGED. That's the question--not what do Catholics believe or what do Protestant's believe or what do atheists believe?

If and when anyone speaks of Biblical Literalism they necessarily speak of what many know as Literal Inerrancy or its progeny. MERGE THEM and stay on task at defining these things carefully. Why put six packs of beer with toothpaste? __________________________________

I disagree with anything that would throwa bunchofinfo on this page on how pepole interperate the Bible. That belongs in Hermeneutics. THe discussion here is Bibliology, it's devine origin and status are being discussed,not how to interperate the content. peace. --DjSamwise 22:42, 28 September 2006 (UTC)


The bible IS inerrant, and it doesn't matter that it was written through man, because it is the word of God and the word of God cannot be changed. Simple as that. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Balletchicka09 (talk • contribs) 01:23, 29 October 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Removed "God is capable of lying" para

I forgot to mention this in my edit summary. While tidying up Seventhcroak's edits, I also deleted the following paragraph:

Some have argued that the Bible need not be inerrant even if it is entirely the Word of God, because they claim that God is capable of lying and may even have purpose for this.[citation needed] However, a number of verses of the Old and New Testament state that God cannot lie.[1]

Let me make one thing clear, God does NOT lie. Except in those verses you mention above. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 134.225.165.169 (talk) 17:06, 4 May 2008 (UTC)

Oh a couple of quotes means god can not lie? Since the bible is the word of God, he say that in there so it looks like he can not lie! You have no reason to say god can not lie.

Also in the bible god describes a tree from on top of which he could see the whole world, thats either a lie in the bible or that must have been when the world flat,concave or convex brfore it became a sphere!--203.87.127.18 07:53, 29 July 2007 (UTC)

um i think the strong feelings re this question over whether God ever lies relate to the kind of idea you have of God, what sort of person you think "they" are. the folk-tale type material reflects a more mischievious Deity. NT views "Them" more philosophically. There is a divide bertween these ways of imaging God: relationally, as the catalyst in a story, or philosopohically, as a perfect being and entirely truthful. best not get too bothered about it.Benny the wayfarer 08:56, 29 July 2007 (UTC)

So you dont have a problem of showing the netural take that god might lie?--203.87.127.18 14:54, 31 July 2007 (UTC)

I deleted it because I think it is irrelevant, either as an item of Christian belief, or as an anti-inerrancy argument. For the latter, it appeared to originate from a comedy routine by Ricky Gervais (see #Ricky Gervais and Exodus 3 above). There is a core of an argument in there: that allegedly Genesis 3 (not Exodus 3) depicts God as lying. It really is a proposed example of an error in the Bible. And compared to others, it is a fairly easy one for an inerrantist to deal with. So I decided it was sufficiently irrelevant to delete. Peter Ballard 05:27, 26 July 2007 (UTC)

Irrelivant, Gee that makes sence, because if god lies in the bible then odviously bible inerrancy does not exist. Whats is irrelevant is the KJV bible you use is not the origonal one having been printed translated and edited by man, who odviously would have made a mistake somewhere right? so the ones being used today do not have biblical inerrancy even if the first one did!--203.87.127.18 14:54, 31 July 2007 (UTC)

I think it should go back in, with the "citation needed" tag. It definitely didn't originate with Gervais (I've seen it used before). As for it being "a fairly easy one for an inerrantist to deal with": I guess that depends on what you mean by "deal with". I'm familiar with the usual excuses, and an inerrantist will choose to believe those: but he would not be correct in doing so. In the story, God did indeed lie in Genesis 2:17: that's what the Hebrew actually says, and it's also very clear in the Sumerian original from which this story is derived (the "Adapa and the South Wind" myth) in which the god Enki lies to Adapa (the Sumerian "Adam") to stop him eating the food of the gods, falsely claiming that this will kill him. http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Genesis_2:17 Robert Stevens 16:52, 26 July 2007 (UTC)
Well in that case it belongs somewhere like Internal consistency of the Bible. It's just an (alleged) Bible error, like hundreds of others, and I don't think it - rather than any of the hundreds of others - deserves a place in this particular article. So far this article has been for listing arguments concerning errancy, rather than Bible errors themselves. I think that's been a fairly good way to go, because discussing a list of Bible errors gets extremely long. Peter Ballard 06:15, 27 July 2007 (UTC)

Alleged bible error LOL, Internal inconsistencys LOL can bothe be right? and without error? NO!, Peter especially since you prefer the KJV and that has some intersting mistakes such as the mustard seed being the smallest seed on the whole planet(Guess god forgot about others with smaller seeds), thats just an incosistency with reality?. Atleast other versions have editied that bit to correct its blatant error. Since no one has the origonal bible, it doesnt matter if its 100% correct or not, as all the ones people are using at home or in church are not 100% correct. Peter Ballard do you claim the KJV has Biblical inerrancy, guess all the different versions just have inconsitencies? Dont you mention somewhere about the bible being the "word of god"?

Since this site is ment to be neutral, the fact that god could be lying in the bible must be added back in! God supposidly saying god doesnt lie isnt any proof, or would be detective Ballard ask did you kill her? No i didnt (Replied the killer) Im not lying. Your odviously innocent then (Detective Ballard), then Detective Ballard would go off and not suffer any sodomites to live (Think that means kills sodomites), then again the word sodomites is not translated properly in the KJV so maybe thats why Detective Ballard suffers sodomites to live? and isnt just defying gods commands in the irrevirant bible.--203.87.127.18 14:41, 31 July 2007 (UTC)

Anon editor says "the fact that god could be lying in the bible must be added back in". No, it only goes back in if it has a WP:Reliable Source indicating its importance. (Actually most of the article is unsourced, but let's at least not make it worse). As I've tried to explain, I believe it is neither a widely held position by Christians, nor an important anti-inerrancy argument - aside from it being an example of an (alleged) Bible error, and there are hundreds of those. And no, my use of "alleged" does not mean I subscribe to inerrancy (of KJV or otherwise). It's simply to avoid taking sides. Peter Ballard 23:57, 31 July 2007 (UTC)

You did not comment on the part in KJV that states the mustard seed is the smallest in the whole world (There is plenty of smaller seeds) so how is a bible inconsistent with reality? Just as reliable as the bible saying god doesnt lie seems fair, so dont go saying the quote is not reliable!

Cronicles2 18:22 "Now therefore, behold, the LORD hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of these thy prophets" Not god lieing just making others lie

2Thess11 "And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie" Tricks people into believing lies --203.87.127.18 07:47, 1 August 2007 (UTC)

So where's the WP:Reliable Source using these as anti-inerrancy arguments? Peter Ballard 11:42, 1 August 2007 (UTC)
BTW I'm not trying to be deliberately evasive. I'm just trying to keep this on topic, i.e. work on improving the article. This page is not the place for me to offer my personal opinions on your personal questions. Peter Ballard 12:45, 1 August 2007 (UTC)
Peter is correct here. Anon, it doesn't matter if you have a source that argues that God lies if that source isn't using the argument against inerrancy. Your recent insertion was removed because it violated rules against using a synthesis of published material, and also gave undue weight to what is a virtually non-existent argument regarding inerrancy. Sxeptomaniac 17:27, 1 August 2007 (UTC)

Peter Ballard the quote is from the bible, I know like all christians you only like to acknowledge certain parts. You realise all the bibles today are copies of copies of other bibles? Copied by man, therefore are not exactly the same as the origional bible! Therefore can not be said to be the word of god and can not be inerrant. I know like all christians you will not accept this fact.

You will not comment that the mustard seed is not the smallest seed in the whole world, even tho claimed by god in the bible. This proves the bible is not inerrancy, you can go and read the passage then google info on smaller seeds. Simple as that, only takes one example to disprove a proof.--Polygamist times 4 15:27, 2 September 2007 (UTC)

Hey, we've got a mindreader here, someone who knows what I believe! In fact I do not subscribe to inerrancy myself, see my web page http://www.peterballard.org . But in any case an inerrantist wouldn't have problems with this, because Jesus was just referring to seeds his hearers knew about, and wasn't attempting to be scienticially accurate. To quote article XIII of the Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy, "We deny that it is proper to evaluate Scripture according to standards of truth and error that are alien to its usage or purpose. We further deny that inerrancy is negated by Biblical phenomena such as a lack of modern technical precision... observational descriptions of nature... (or) the use of hyperbole." Peter Ballard 07:14, 3 September 2007 (UTC)

Jesus is several times reported by gospels to have used the seed as a metaphor. similar issue with quote in John where the seed dies. we now know that dead seeds do not grow: seeds do not die, they enter dormancy.. Job's observation that a man is not like a tree that can be cut down and spring again is more true in life. but this is an issue about Xian doctrine, theology. the quote from Chicago Statement above seems to be a massive and undisguised equivocation, but i suppose there is some kind of point to itBenny the wayfarer 22:43, 3 September 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Criticisms section

Can we get a consensus on what belongs in this section? I think the criticisms (criticisms of inerrancy itself, as opposed to criticisms of related issues like Fundamentalism) fall into a small number of (I think 3) pretty clear categories, which can each get its own subsection:

  • Is the doctrine disproved by actual Bible errors? (The current "Arguments regarding falsifiability" section, but lots more could be added, though probably a link to something like Internal consistency of the Bible will be required to stop this section getting too long).
  • Does the Bible teach its own inerrancy? (The current "Meaning of the Word of God" section is one small part of this, again lots more can be added).
  • Is inerrancy meaningless when it is restricted to the autographs? (rather than copies or translations) (Sort of addressed in the current "Translation" section).

In my opinion the "Arguments regarding purpose of passages" and "Conflicting world-views" sections don't really belong in the criticism section at all. The former can go in a section on how inerrancy is handled in practice, though strictly I don't think it's a criticism. The "Historical Origins" probably belongs in its own section (with a serious rewrite) rather than being part of the "Criticism" section. Peter Ballard 04:10, 3 August 2007 (UTC)

i was thinking on a similar line but as follows. three sections entitled (something like) 1)Accuracy-looks at debates over prooftexts, translations and falsifiability. 2)Value. considers what Word of God means theologically. 3)Meaning. when a doctrine is examined, its effects on the community of belief has to be considered. considers the FX of the belief on church and spirituality in the contexts of possible alternatives. this should include some defense of inerrancy's role within the church communities that promote it, for some balance. sandbox time?Benny the wayfarer 08:54, 3 August 2007 (UTC)

Looks like a good plan, Peter. Sxeptomaniac 17:38, 6 August 2007 (UTC)

I agree. From how the article looks now, we need some mention of internal contradictions. Lundse 20:38, 10 September 2007 (UTC)


[edit] Jonah addition

The Jonah addition is a good illustration of the problems many critics of Biblical inerrancy have with accepting this position. The text that required a citation has been modified hopefully to overcome that requirement. References are following. John D. Croft 05:49, 23 August 2007 (UTC)

I think they are different. A flat, 6000 year old earth is in direct contradiction to modern science. (And many inerrantists answer this by saying that some of these parts are poetic and/or need not be taken literally, which is why I called the position a straw man and requested a reference). Jonah is a miracle which (strictly speaking) cannot be proven or disproven, along with other miracles such as the resurrection, virgin birth, water into wine, etc. Inerrantists believe that God at times performs miracles so (generally) take these at face value. Peter Ballard 07:31, 23 August 2007 (UTC)
Living three days in the stomach of a fish would result in digestion. As the words of the Porgy and Bess Gershwin song say
Oh Jonah he lived in de whale
Oh Jonah he lived in de whale
For he made his home in dat fish's abdomen
Oh Jonah he lived in de whale
It ain't necessarily so
It ain't necessarily so
De things dat yo' liable to read in de Bible
It ain't necessarily so
Regards, John D. Croft 14:13, 23 August 2007 (UTC)
How does it add to the article? What point does it illustrate that isn't already being said? It's redundant, and I'm removing it as such. Sxeptomaniac 21:02, 23 August 2007 (UTC)

trouble is your reason for this removal is clearly prejudicial. hands off! it is relevant and well referenced.

to illustrate his last remark Jonah in the whale, Noah inthe ark what did they do when everything looked so dark?

Man they said we better acchentuate the positive e-lim-inate the negativ....latch on to the....etc.Benny the wayfarer 23:47, 23 August 2007 (UTC)

Please debate my objection (the difference between verifiable cosmology and non-verifiable miracles) instead of quoting poetry at me. Peter Ballard 02:17, 24 August 2007 (UTC)
Prejudicial how? The insertion doesn't tie specifically to anything, but just adds a superfluous illustration, bloating the article and diluting any useful information. You haven't addressed either objection by calling them "prejudicial." Sxeptomaniac 15:49, 24 August 2007 (UTC)

many religious people, not "inerrantists" may believe in miracles. but all the biblical miracles are supernatural events that belong together with other supernaturalistic beliefs in a discussion of how biblical interrpretation is affected by supernatural cosmology: reported mircles could be believed or even held true on balance of probability but they cannot be proved beyondreasonabledoubt, the standard of verification one should expect for such phenomena. there is a thorough discussion of the attempts by Ramm to explain or prove possible the Jonah prepared fish thing in the pages quoted from Barr.

If historians do not use the supernatural as a category of explanation in the writing of history, it is not necessarily and not in fact because they deny the existence of the supernatural: rather it is because with the supernatural anything at all can happen. there is thusno means whatever of controlling statements that purport to state events that are explained as supernaturally caused. Ramm illustrates this well with his interpretation of Jonah and the fish or whale.

Benny the wayfarer 10:38, 24 August 2007 (UTC)

I must say I don't see your point. Are you saying that any belief in supernatural miracles doesn't fit modern cosmology? Peter Ballard 13:04, 24 August 2007 (UTC) (I've deleted other comments which were really just repeating myself) Peter Ballard 13:17, 24 August 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Argument against Ramm does not belong

I've found another problem with the Jonah addition, as I was researching the theologians involved: Bernard Ramm was not a proponent of inerrancy, but actually argued against it. As such, it seems that using an argument against one of his views as an argument against inerrancy would seem to be a synthesis of published materials, rather than a valid source for the argument. It seems to me that those paragraphs should go, but I know some here seem to really want it included, so I'm discussing it here first.

This also leads me to question the Mythical cosmology, a Stumbling-Block section in general. If a "mythical cosmology" isn't unique to those holding to inerrancy, wouldn't that make it a criticism of a viewpoint held by a wider group of people, rather than specific to this article? Does it belong here? Sxeptomaniac 17:52, 11 September 2007 (UTC)

although the text linked does voice some criticisms, it also defends inerrancy. nowhere here does Ramm say the Bible contains any error. the text is really a good source for cosmological section, under the third objection. it is also quite a good read; as the first sentence implies, inerrancy is part of a wider issue about the " range of authority" of scripture Benny the wayfarer 22:40, 11 September 2007 (UTC)

I don't see any point where Ramm defends inerrancy. He addresses some types of accusations of errors because he's "demanding that the critic take a look at the whole problem of error and realize its complexities before he starts assigning errors in Scripture." That doesn't mean he's defending inerrancy.
Look later on...

I must say in summary that my concern about science and inerrancy is not the same concern as that of many of my evangelical friends. They believe that the assertion of Biblical inerrancy is a theological must... I think very differently at this point. To me whether there are some errors or not in Scripture is something determined empirically. We cannot dogmatize facts into or out of existence.

Ramm clearly supports biblical inspiration and authority, but repeatedly argues against inerrancy and infallibility in the article. Sxeptomaniac 23:25, 11 September 2007 (UTC)
I too have problems with the "Mythical Cosmology" section. The section seems to be more arguing against miracles (and many Christians believe in miracles but not inerrancy) and biblical literalism (and not all inerrantists are literalists). In other words, the section's not really on target. Peter Ballard 12:09, 12 September 2007 (UTC)
I've just backed up Sxeptomaniac in deleting this section. I don't care enough about this to fight it to the death, but I do believe the section doesn't really discuss inerrancy (as argued above). I'd like to see its supporters explain why it is about inerrancy, as distinct from miracles and biblical literalism. Peter Ballard 01:03, 28 September 2007 (UTC)
Why did the stuff on "Biblical cosmology" get incorporated into the current tussle over Jonah? I don't feel particularly comfortable about including the Jonah "miracle" as an "error", but I dont see why the fate of the first and last paragraphs should be so intertwined with that of the middle paragraph. --Robert Stevens 11:35, 28 September 2007 (UTC)
As Ramms essay makes clear, the debates on inerrancy are really part of a wider issue about the nature and scope of the Bible's authority. it is not really possible to entirely separate the issue by attempting to make inerrancy a separate debate. nor is this issue solely about specific errors. there are valid questions about wider points of view, which include cosmological , metaphysical, moral and historical perspectives. the section on cosmology is about why inerrancy is unbelievable. people may disagree with this material, that is the real objection expressed, not that it is not relevant.Benny the wayfarer 11:55, 28 September 2007 (UTC)
Claiming that we are being dishonest about our objections is not assuming good faith. Please stick to addressing the objections. Again, "mythological cosmology" has little connection to inerrancy. Roman Catholics believe in miracles, but do not believe in biblical inerrancy, so a sizable population of the world's Christians are in direct contradiction of that criticism. We are not to document every criticism of inerrancy, but only those significant and directly related to it.
You have yet to address the fact that using Ramm in this section is a violation of original research policies, either. Sχeptomaniacχαιρετε 16:30, 28 September 2007 (UTC)


the source here, , Barr's 'Fundamentalism', is largely a critique of inerrancy in the context of abuse of the Bible by conservative religious types. the argument presented is a precis of a passage by this Oxford professor and not a synthesis. the fact that Ramm perhaps prevaricated a bit over minor "difficulties" makes his general position and tendency no less clear. however i have included this section as it is relevant and also it contains very entertaining and enlightening prose. Ramm's article was in fact very refreshing reading,there is a sense of highly cultivated understanding about what he wrote, but even if it may undermine the Jonah debate, it also reinforces the need for comment on cosmology and wider issues. the case of rc supernaturalism is rather different, because most such miracles are not biblical, they are worked by saints hermits and martyrs etc.; some miracles may be a trad part of rc belief, part of folk religion rather than core teaching of the church- this doesn't mean that all rcs are in agreement. protestant fundamentalists by contrast hold a generally rationalist and scientific world-view, punctured with supernaturalism if an interpretation of the Bible seems to demand it. Benny the wayfarer 23:20, 28 September 2007 (UTC)

regarding good faith, i am sure that you are entirely sincere in your own belief, which unlike Speeding cause no harm to any living thing at least by itself. the fact that our beliefs differ is not evidence that mine may be wrong. once i had to ring a city lawyer who told me there is no such thing as good faith. she sounded like she had a lot of experience. notwithstanding this, there is definately such a thing as faith.Benny the wayfarer 23:36, 28 September 2007 (UTC)

It's a little muddled, I think you've misunderstood what "assuming good faith" means. I'm talking about not making assumptions about a person's motives. You are assuming that you know what Peter Ballard and myself believe, and that we are attempting to advance an agenda, based solely on our opposition to some edits you support. Not only are your assumptions quite false, but inappropriate to begin with. Argue the edits, not what you think the editor's beliefs are.
You're criticizing fundamentalist Christians instead of inerrancy again, though. Once again, this is not the purpose of the article, and I think we should keep it focused on the subject. They are certainly distinct subjects, with their own articles.
It seems we might be stuck between two small groups of thought on this section, though. Maybe we should file a request for comment and see if we can bring in a few more editors to look at this and see what they think. Can we agree to that? Sχeptomaniacχαιρετε 17:24, 1 October 2007 (UTC)

Is the dispute effectively dead then? I'm a patient person, but it's approaching two weeks since any significant activity here. Should I remove the section? Sχeptomaniacχαιρετε 16:53, 11 October 2007 (UTC)


[edit] Impenetrable jargon

"Prima Facie" refers to evidence and claims from the Bible itself. "The Witness of the Spirit" is cited as proof to the person to whom God speaks. The "Transforming Ability" of scripture is cited as yet another supernatural proof to an individual. The "Unity of the Scripture" despite its myriad of authors, cultures, and topics, the "Historicity of the Bible" and how the archaeological record is interpreted to confirm the Bible, the "Testimony of Christ", "fulfilled prophecies", "apparent indestructibility" of the scriptures, and the "integrity of its authors" are all commonly taught as ways reliability is established.

This paragraph is one long string of quoted jargon-phrases which would mean nothing whatsoever to a reader not already intimately familiar with Geisler & Nix's viewpoint. What this section needs instead is an exposition of G&N's arguments in support of their (bullet-pointed) claims -- as otherwise the reader has no alternative except to blindly accept, or blindly reject their conclusions. Hrafn42TalkStalk 09:37, 20 September 2007 (UTC)

[edit] History

This article could use a history section. That is, how long has inerrancy been a belief? From where did this idea originate? Muslims claim the Koran is word for word perfect (from God to Mohammad), and Mormons believe the Book of Mormon is also a perfect word for word translation. Did either of these faiths have an influence in the belief of the Bible's inerrancy? Rklawton 00:38, 22 October 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Doctrine

Is inerrancy a matter of doctrine within any Christian denomination? Perhaps I missed it when scanning through the article. If so, then I think this information should be highlighted. Rklawton 00:38, 22 October 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Canonicity

Currently, the article claims that the cannon was solidified during the reign of Constantine - but I happened a little bit later - at the Council of Constantinople. Is there any evidence that there was a universally accepted Cannon by the end of Constantine's reign? "The Da Vinci" code claims so, but historically it is unsound. Dmitry Kotik 01:51, 16 November 2007 (UTC)

There were debates about what constituted the Canon ever since Irenaeus of Lyons in about 150 CE. However, it remained dusputed until the Easter letter of 367, when Athanasius, Bishop of Alexandria, gave a list of exactly the same books as what would become the New Testament canon,[8] and he used the word "canonized" (kanonizomena) in regards to them. Athanasius had been in dispute with the Arian Emperor Constantius, son of Constantine, who despite his support from Eusebius and Sylvester, seems to have inclined towardfs Arianism himself. John D. Croft 02:48, 16 November 2007 (UTC)
The text says "finalised during the reign of Constantine" (my emphasis) -- which is inaccurate. Constantine died in 337, and the first recorded advocacy of the eventual canon (no more, no less) was by Athanasius in 367. It was probably "finalised" by Augustine of Hippo's advocacy of it at the Council of Hippo (in 393, for which no record now exists), but the first surviving record of its acceptance was at the Council of Carthage in 397. HrafnTalkStalk 03:04, 16 November 2007 (UTC)
In any case, it is well discussed in the Biblical canon article and there needs to be nothing more than a passing reference here. in fact, the "Textual Tradition of the New Testament" section is almost entirely off topic - all that is needed is a reference to the fact (which is important, I might add), and a pointer to Textual criticism. Peter Ballard 03:51, 16 November 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Basis of Belief

This section needs a little work. The basis of inerrency is not the logical conslusion presented. The basis is in Scripture, such as where Paul argues the tense and gender of the word "Seed" thus setting a president. Does anyone have a good refference for this discussion? My books are packed away currently. --68.62.67.187 (talk) 20:04, 17 December 2007 (UTC) OK, I edited leaving blanks to be filled by editors more skillful than I but the information is essentially in place. Thanks! --68.62.67.187 (talk) 20:11, 17 December 2007 (UTC)

[edit] POV?

Is this article still POV suspect? It doesn't seem to promote or demean the subject. It appears to simply report what the views are. Can we remove the POV tag? --68.62.67.187 (talk) 20:13, 17 December 2007 (UTC)

I'm afraid that your edits will require citation and some straightforward typographical editing to justify the statements before they can be accepted. I've removed them for the moment, so you may not want to remove the POV tag. Michaelbusch (talk) 20:14, 17 December 2007 (UTC)
Well let's not delete them, lets leave them up for proper editing. One step at a time my fellow wikipedian. --68.62.67.187 (talk) 23:26, 25 December 2007 (UTC)
Vioala, a simple "citation needed" tag works just fine there while more effective editors than you and I can clean it up. --68.62.67.187 (talk) 23:32, 25 December 2007 (UTC)

[edit] POV

Does anyone know what the POV contention currently is? I cannot find it on this discussion page. Thanks. --68.62.67.187 (talk) 23:33, 25 December 2007 (UTC)

Indeed, removing the POV tag seems appropriate. 86.212.63.118 (talk) 21:35, 29 December 2007 (UTC)

POV probably refers to the referencing almost exclusively supporting an inerrancy point of view, and an exclusion of references arguing against it. John D. Croft (talk) 06:02, 30 December 2007 (UTC)
Not counting the scripture refs which don't really belong in the footnotes, what I call references (the footbotes) are about 50/50 I reckon. Dodd, Ehrman, Barr, Spong, I think Hick, and the New Jerusalem Bible, are all cited against inerrancy. The article has horrible organisational problems, but I think we need something more specific to call it NPOV. Peter Ballard (talk) 10:40, 30 December 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Rearrangement

I've rearranged on the following basis:

  • Section 1 (Textual tradition of the New Testament) Defines Inerrancy. (Though needs some balance).
  • Section 2 (Basis of belief) gives the basis for Inerrancy.
  • Section 3 (Criticisms of biblical inerrancy) gives arguments against inerrancy (so logically belongs adjacent to section 2).
  • Section 4 (Major religious views on the Bible) gives different denominations positions on inerrancy.

Peter Ballard (talk) 12:13, 5 April 2008 (UTC)

[edit] POV

The point of view presented in this article is overwhelmingly Christian. However, the Bible, in the first instance, refers to the Hebrew Bible. Given that the Christian Bible is at once a translation of the original, and by definition does not recognise the validity of the Hebrew Bible, the article can not claim that it holds the Bible inerrant since it calls it the Old Testament. The article can therefore only speak of the inerrancy of the New Testament.--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 13:23, 5 April 2008 (UTC)

Can you present any reliable sources presenting this view? Preferably more coherently than you do. HrafnTalkStalk 14:47, 5 April 2008 (UTC)
I think before we get to the sources, note can be made of the Wikipedia itself.
  • The opening sentence in this article is "Biblical inerrancy is the doctrinal position[1] that in its original form, the Bible is totally without error, and free from all contradiction; "referring to the complete accuracy of Scripture, including the historical and scientific parts." - However the word Bible is linked to...
  • The reference to the "doctrinal position[1]" is however linked to the Dallas Theological Seminary (DTS), a Christian organisation, which has the doctrine of "We believe that all the Scriptures center about the Lord Jesus Christ in His person and work in His first and second coming, and hence that no portion, even of the Old Testament, is properly read, or understood, until it leads to Him."
  • Which leads me to conclude that DTS asserts in the article that the Jews have not been able to read their own scriptures until the founding of Christianity because the Old Testament is "the Hebrew Bible, the Tanakh, with some variations and additions", and only with the founding of the DTS can the Old Testament be "properly read, or understood". In any case, no one who has not experienced this "proper reading and understanding" and has been "led to Him", can ever properly understand the Bible.
  • If the original was not understood by the Jews who made the translation to Greek[2], then surely the translation can not be understood either due to insecurity in defining true meaning, and therefore nothing can be said about the inerrancy of the interpretation by the DTD because its "doctrinal statement" becomes a tautology.
  • Therefore only the non-Hebrew part of the Christian literature can be used for the Biblical inerrancy article, and that of the use of what is know as the Old Testament is, according to Christian doctrine, in error.
Is this clear enough?--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 20:58, 5 April 2008 (UTC)

PS. The DTS "doctrinal statement" is also a formal organisational policy, and therefore not a something that can be used to define an article in Wikipedia as a matter of Wikipedia policy and guidelines, unless the article is about the DTS as an organisation, which it is not.--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 21:13, 5 April 2008 (UTC)

"Biblical Inerrenacy" is, in my understanding, primarily a Christian phenomenon, and a very widespread one which deserves an article. I reject the idea that the articles deserves a "worldwide view" tag, because it is about a Christian doctrine, which developed within Christianity.
"Biblical Inerrancy in Judaism" probably should be a separate article. I don't think there'd be a lot of commonality between the articles. Feel free to create it. Peter Ballard (talk) 00:12, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
Well Peter, it appears that in Judaism the belief in inerrancy of the Torah had been explicit for well over a millennium before the founding of Christianity, and this includes exact reproduction of the work letter for letter, with one letter found out of place rendering the whole scroll unusable. So it seems the doctrine is not something invented by Christianity, and given the text of the article makes repeated references to the Hebrew Bible, it seems the authors concur in this with me, even if they may not have been aware of this as you are. As long as the word Bible is in the article title, it really is not something I can do anything about.--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 07:04, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
Your observation confirms my point: that Biblical Inerrancy in Judaism takes a very different form to what it does in Christianity. I still think separate articles is more appropriate. Peter Ballard (talk) 07:56, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
So how do you explain this article being Biblical, and at the same time not dealing with the Hebrew Bible, and the precedent from Judaism?--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 08:58, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
Because no one's been bothered to write it yet. The reason, I am guessing, is because inerrancy is less important in Judaism than in Christianity. By all means, get an expert on Jewish Biblical Inerrancy to write an article on it. I still think it fits better as a separate article, because the issues are so different, though I'm willing to be convinced otherwise. Peter Ballard (talk) 10:22, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
Inerrancy in Judaism is immaterial. We are talking about this article. This article claims that inerrancy is a solely Christian concept, but the article also uses Jewish texts, so clearly the question of inerrancy in Judaism must be considered. This is particularly true since the article acknowledges that the Jewish idea of preserving utmost accuracy in the reproduction of the text as affirmed by Paul (a Jew) by saying that "This sets a precedent for inerrant interpretation down to the individual letters of the words", the argument being based on Genesis.
Consider this from the article which is used for the Basis of belief,"First, from the Old Testament:
"The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple. The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, enlightening the eyes. The fear of the LORD is clean, enduring forever: the judgements of the LORD are true and righteous altogether". Psalm 19:7-9 This is derived from the Jewish Tanakh. How can you suggest then that this is a solely Christian concept?!--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 11:16, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
You're straying into WP:Original Research. Peter Ballard (talk) 11:28, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
What ARE you talking about?! I'm quoting from this very article, in case you haven't read it.--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 12:28, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
Where does the article say "the question of inerrancy in Judaism must be considered"? Peter Ballard (talk) 12:33, 6 April 2008 (UTC)
I never cease to be amazed here. It is BECAUSE the article refers to the Bible, and uses several sources from Judaism, that the question of inerrancy in Judaism must be considered. After all, if the Jews said that they accept their text to be in error, Christianity could not very well base its own inerrancy on a source already so compromised, right?--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 12:56, 6 April 2008 (UTC)

I would note that mrg3105 has not proffered a single reliable source on the Judaic view on Biblical inerrancy. I would suggest that, until he does so, this is all just so much WP:SOAP, and has no place on an article talkpage per WP:TALK. HrafnTalkStalk 13:35, 6 April 2008 (UTC)

We cannot accept anything from mrg3105 without references. Even with references, this material might not be appropriate for this article, which is essentially about the Christian view of biblical inerrancy. Of course, there will be different Jewish and Muslim and Hindu and Buddhist views of biblical inerrancy, and even differences among different sects of Christianity about this. If we get enough material, we could have a whole suite of biblical inerrancy articles. So please, if you have sources, write a Jewish views on biblical inerrancy article.--Filll (talk) 14:21, 6 April 2008 (UTC)

Can we remove the POV tag? I'm happy to leave the "Christian Worldview" tag for a while to see if anything happens, but for a POV tag to be present there needs to be a reason offered for the article being POV, and none has been offered. Peter Ballard (talk) 10:07, 8 April 2008 (UTC)

The POV is there because the article is overwhelmingly written from the Christian POV! The second template is really an explanation of why the first one is there, because I do not want to state that the part which deals with THE Christian concept of innerancy is in itself POV-edited.
How can anyone claim this to be a solely Christian article when the basis of the article is a meaning derived by Paul from Genesis, and a statement by Jesus that refers to the Torah?!
In my humble opinion this article was written with a POV that chose to ignore the pre-NT Jewish concept of inerrancy. Is the suggestion being made that I should write this missing part? If you look at my other work, you will see that I try to add edits only when references to reliable sources are available. However, if an article is half-written, what does that mean other then that it was written either to deliberately obscure, or by editors that failed to do the research in the first place?
I am overcommitted as it is in both time, projects and articles, but when I do have more time available, I will return to edit this article unless this is done beforehand.
Rather then pass judgement over me, given I had barely contributed to the article as yet, you may want to consider doing more research rather then being so defensive.--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 11:27, 8 April 2008 (UTC)
That is a problem with scope, not POV. POV tag is for an article not written from a WP:NPOV (Neutral Point of View). The article is not perfect but it is written reasonably neutrally and does present arguments for both sides, so I say remove the POV tag. Peter Ballard (talk) 12:05, 8 April 2008 (UTC)
Both sides? Which is the other side?--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 12:30, 8 April 2008 (UTC)
For and against the notion that the (Christian) Bible is inerrant. Peter Ballard (talk) 12:39, 8 April 2008 (UTC)

[edit] Abraham and his seed

What do you mean "pedantic", not that I take it as an insult? The entire premise is based on the interpretation of the word "seed" in the singular. This was literally true because Abraham had only one child with Sarah, and it says so in the same verse!

19. And God said, "Indeed, your wife Sarah will bear you a son, and you shall name him Isaac, and I will establish My covenant with him as an everlasting covenant for his seed after him.

So why is it off-topic, and can not be added as a footnote?--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 12:47, 8 April 2008 (UTC)

Two different things. The pedantic thing I did was to add the same citation to two consecutive sentences, and is unrelated to the footnote you added.
As for your footnote, there are lots of issues of interpretation. e.g. which verse is Paul citing? The NIV gives 3 possibilities (Gen 12:7, 13:15, 24:7) none of which are the verse you suggest (Gen 17:19). Then, does the seed mean Isaac, Ishmael, Jesus, or all of the above, or none of the above? This article is not the place to debate, or even mention, this point. All that needs to be said is that Paul is making an issue of the fact that the word is singular not plural. Anything else is off topic. Peter Ballard (talk) 12:59, 8 April 2008 (UTC)
You must be joking! You don't even know which verse the reference is being made to, and you refuse an offer of my context?! How can you add anything without context? If the statement by Paul is used, it has to be contextualised or removed as OR since it becomes a bit of speculation on the part of the editor that can refer to any one of the verses that uses the word lezaro.--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 13:10, 8 April 2008 (UTC)
OK, let me rephrase: I do not where it's from, it's from 3 different verses (none of which are the verse you suggest). It is not OR because I am simply repeating the argument in a cited source. As I said, the context of the Genesis verse is not the point, the point is that Paul is making an issue of the fact that the word is singuler not plural. Peter Ballard (talk) 07:52, 10 April 2008 (UTC)

[edit] Wrong path

This article is completly on the wrong footing throughout, "inerrant" means that it does not stray from the theme, it does not mean "without error". To err, means to wander from a path. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 172.200.218.136 (talk) 23:06, 8 April 2008 (UTC)

Which seems to be supported by Tucker on p87. of his Etymological dictionary of Latin--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 02:31, 9 April 2008 (UTC)

To "stray" is an archaic meaning of "err", it's current meaning is "to make a mistake" or "to violate an accepted standard of conduct". "Inerrant" means "free from error".
So, what is this article is intended to be about is the Christian view of Biblical:
  • 1. Lack of written error - I think not; Hebrew Bible is not really mentioned
  • 2. Lack of error in interpreting - applied only to NT; not really because the view represented is that of a specific Christian denomination (evangelical)--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 05:08, 9 April 2008 (UTC)
Within the Christian church, inerrant means without error. Obviously this article is not going to be written with a Christian POV as it should be (if you want it to be truthful anyway), but the Christian side of things should at least be mentioned. This article is on the wrong path, but following your advice would lead it further astray. --Andrew from NC (talk) 05:54, 9 April 2008 (UTC)
If inerrant means without error, then it ought to be focusing on the manuscript analysis, right? However, the actual content says that it is regarded as accepted literal truth, which is not exactly how it is seen in Judaism, but no mention is made of the Jewish perspective, or that the Bible refers to more then NT. In fact it is not the Bible that is inerrant, but either the: Source, the messengers, or the transcribers of it. That has been my point all along. Now, how is it that expanding the article, and pointing it in the right direction going to "lead it further astray"? And further from what?--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 06:29, 9 April 2008 (UTC)
It would be leading the article further away from the truth. Like I have said above, it is obvious that this article is not going to be written in a truthful way, because the truth is that the Christian Bible is inerrant. It doesn't matter what the jewish bible or any other bible says because it is not the Bible (note capital B). But you seem to think that it does matter. Of course I would be thrilled if someone agreed with me, but I am not naive enough to think that most people will, and seeing as Wikipedia is written by most people and not just a few, it logically follows that this article is not going to be written in a truthful manor. --Andrew from NC (talk) 09:11, 9 April 2008 (UTC)
Well Andrew, if we were in Hebrew Wikipedia, every word would have been started with the same size letter it ended with, but here there is only one Bible. I don't know what you mean by "truth" either, but given your user page I suspect I can take a guess. What you have here is an opportunity to create an article that provides a reference to others while using Wikipedia policies and guidelines, including citing sources for anything you write. As it stands now, the article's purpose is quite unclear, its major premise is a doctrine representative of a registered organisation, and there are some troubling omissions showing a lack of understanding of the subject. I'm happy to discuss the issues (time permitted), but I can not at this stage contribute extensively to editing.--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 10:58, 9 April 2008 (UTC)
In answer to the question at 5:08 on 9-Apr, the answer is 1 - lack of written error (in the original sources). The few mentions of the Hebrew Bible (Old Testament) are because the doctrine is mainly derived from the New Testament, though more Old Testament verses could be added.
In answer to the comment at 6:29 on 9-Apr, we should not be focusing on manuscript analysis, because that is not the contentious issue. Inerrantists and non-inerrantists alike accept the results of Textual Criticism, there is no issue. What is contentious is whether the autographs (the original copies) are inerrant.
Your comment "In fact it is not the Bible that is inerrant, but either the: Source, the messengers, or the transcribers of it" is WP:OR unless you can provide a cite for it. I get the impression that you are coming at this from a Jewish perspective and have little feel for the Christian perspective. Given that, you should not be contributing to an article on the Christian doctrine of Biblical Inerrancy. By all means, write an article or section on the Jewish perspective, where it seems the issues are very different. Peter Ballard (talk) 08:10, 10 April 2008 (UTC)
Thank you Peter Ballard! You have hit the nail on the head. --Andrew from NC (talk) 08:29, 10 April 2008 (UTC)
Its interesting that you say my statement is OR ;O)
I am not trying to stress Judaism at all, but the fact is that the Septuagint is a translation of Hebrew to Greek, so this is important because of all the references to it made in NT.
The question of whether the original copies are inerrant is concerned with textual analysis, because it affects translation and interpretation. This goes to the question "What did God mean by that?"
Now, the interesting thing about the Textual Criticism article is that its only reference to the Hebrew sources is by saying in the section Applications of textual criticism that "Masoretic text, the Tanakh in Hebrew, 7th to 10th centuries CE, the basis of the modern Hebrew Bible" is the only application fit consideration as far as the Jewish sources are concerned.
So, I find it quite amazing that although the Hebrew Bible provides a significant part of the total volume of prophetic text in Christianity, and is often referred to in the NT, it is completely excluded from consideration as a source of God's messages.
I also find it interesting that although the Torah has been written by hand for thousands of years, and each scroll is checked annually for errors, while scribes use computer checking to verify their work, this is not considered at all interesting while Christian texts are accepted to have developed many errors in manuscripts, and there is a wide scope of translations and interpretations that existed and exists in Christian versions.
I am not out to criticise anyone, but this is supposed to be a balanced reference work. It can not be ignored that there is a Jewish concept of inerrancy, but editors in this and other articles like Textual Criticism have made it abundantly clear that neutrality is not going to be applied here.
Do I need to get an RFC, or can we be civil and reach consensus through discussion and without labelling like "you are coming at this from a Jewish perspective and have little feel for the Christian perspective"? I am in fact coming from a very neutral perspective.
  • I have asked what this article is about. The answer is - lack of written error (in the original sources)/whether the autographs (the original copies) are inerrant
  • Is the Hebrew Bible not considered an original source?--mrg3105 (comms) ♠♥♦♣ 11:04, 10 April 2008 (UTC)
Yes, the Hebrew Bible is considered inerrant in the original Hebrew, by inerrantist Christians. I don't know where you got the idea that it's not. I also don't understand why you bring up the Septuagint. The Septuagint is a translation, so is not considered inerrant. This is not affected by the fact that the New Testament writers, writing in Greek, used the Septuagint. Peter Ballard (talk) 11:33, 10 April 2008 (UTC)
Peter, considering the only Hebrew text we have is the Masoretic text, and it is shows from the Dead Sea Scrolls that this is fairly late, and the earlier Hebrew versions were in fact closer to the Septuagint, that the original Hebrew versions no longer exist? What effect does this have upon the views of Biblical inerrancy? John D. Croft (talk) 03:40, 20 April 2008 (UTC)
My understanding is that the Dead Sea Scrolls show the opposite, confirming the general reliability of the Masoretic Text.(Ref: New Bible Dictionary, either 2nd (1982) or 3rd (1992) Edition, "Texts and Versions" article, by Alan Millard) Where the DSS have shown errors, the text used for modern bibles has been modified, but these are not many. (I once counted them in the NRSV footnotes, and there were about 80 in the entire Old Testament, many of them trivial). In any case, this doesn't affect inerrancy. Inerrantists hold to the inerrancy of the originals, not the Masoretic text, so when it is found that the text being used is different from the original, the text is simply updated and used in subeqeuent Bible translations. Peter Ballard (talk) 05:35, 20 April 2008 (UTC)

[edit] Meaning of "Word of God"

The text says: 'There is only one instance in the Bible where the phrase "The Word Of God" refers to something "written". The reference is to the "Decalogue" which many Christian denominations consider "passed away".' This needs clarifying. What is it for the ten commandments to have "passed away"? Myrvin (talk) 18:59, 16 April 2008 (UTC)

[edit] Function of Biblical inerrancy

I have been reading the work of the theologian Anne Primavesi, and she speculates upon the function of the belief in biblical inerrancy. Given that there is not a section on the various functions that biblical inerrancy serves, I wonder if we need a section on this in the article? John D. Croft (talk) 03:36, 20 April 2008 (UTC)

I've no idea whether Primavesi's opinions are notable enough, but certainly a section - or subsection - on the topic would be worthwhile. I suspect it would belong under theological criticisms. There is already a note of a comment by Spong to that effect ("paper pope of Protestantism"). Peter Ballard (talk) 01:02, 21 April 2008 (UTC)

[edit] Introduction

The line: 'Biblical inerrancy is the conservative evangelical doctrinal position[1] that in its original form, the Bible is totally without error, and free from all contradiction; "referring to the complete accuracy of Scripture, including the historical and scientific parts."' is too narrow for an introduction. This inerrancy is a particular position that is held by some people. Perhaps it should read something like: Biblical inerrancy is the position that, in its original form, the Bible is totally without error, and free from all contradiction. It is a part of the conservative evangelical doctrine ; "referring to the complete accuracy of Scripture, including the historical and scientific parts."[2]. Although I would prefer any reference to those holding the position to be excluded from the introduction, which should serve to define the topic in its general sense. Myrvin (talk) 08:52, 6 May 2008 (UTC)

I think the wording is fine except for " including the historical and scientific parts", which as you point out, is too specific for an introduction. Honestly, I'm more concerned over the uncited OR. Faith (talk) 03:21, 7 May 2008 (UTC)
I agree with Myrvin. Especially, the words "conservative evangelical" should be removed, as they are far too restrictive. Unless there are strong objections to changing this to ``a doctrinal position held by some Christians, I will be changing this in the near future. - Paul Rimmer, 23:08, 20 May 2008 (EST)

[edit] Christians and inerrancy

There are a lot of Christians who think there are errors in the Bible. The current Archbishop of Canterbury for one. There doesn't seem to be any recognition of this in the article.--Doug Weller (talk) 19:12, 7 May 2008 (UTC)

I'm not sure it's necessary. The article specifically states that it's a conservative evangelical belief, implying it's not found throughout Christianity. Also, the Biblical inerrancy#Theological criticisms section implies that there is criticism of the view from other Christians. Still, there might be room for some clarification in the Biblical inerrancy#Major religious views on the Bible section. I was looking at it, and it might be worth expanding, but we'll need sources. Sχeptomaniacχαιρετε 23:59, 7 May 2008 (UTC)