User:Voltagedrop

Q: what does the mathematical pirate say?

A: $rrrrrrrr\ dr\ d\theta\ d \phi\ !$

$\left \langle \psi \right |$

Ψ = A ψ

s.t.

$A^2\int _{-\infty}^{\infty} {\psi ^* \psi} dx = 1$

where

ψ *

ψ

$2A + 3B +4{e^-}{\to} 5C + 6D$

$\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x} = \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \ddot x}$

$e i π - 1 = 0$

$x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 -4ac}}{2a}$

$G μν = - 8π G T μν$

$\gamma = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}$

where $\beta = \frac{v}{c}$

$\nabla \cdot \mathbf{D} = \rho$

$\nabla \cdot \mathbf{B} = 0$

$\nabla \times \mathbf{E} = - \frac{\partial\mathbf{B}}{\partial t}$

$\nabla \times \mathbf{H} = \mathbf{J} + \frac{\partial\mathbf{B}}{\partial t}$

$H(t)\left | \Psi (t) \right\rangle = i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left | \Psi (t) \right\rangle$

$f(x) \sim \frac{1}{2} a_0 + \sum_{n = 1}^\infty \Big ( a_n \cos \left ( nx \right )+ b_n \sin \left ( nx \right ) \Big )$

$a_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} {f(t) \cos \left ( nt \right ) dt}$

$b_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} {f(t) \sin \left ( nt \right ) dt}$