Talk:Torque steering

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Im going to delete the following section: "In many cases, torque steer is the result of a bad upper facited regulation modulator control homogonizer with a pasturizing bypass linked to the incorrent absent placement of 14 seperate lost bolts that become dislodged in the inner twinings of the "rotary gurter" which hang down below the maximum tollerance for substantial weak point physicallity. THEREFOR resulting in unwanted movement of the anterior section of purified transients that make up the common shoe" because its quite obviously BS... unless ive been lied to about cars for the past years of my life.

[edit] Ony in FWD cars?

If you have a transverse engine in a rear or mid engined car (or indeed unequal lenght driveshafts in any rear wheel drive car) shouldn't they also display torque steer, but with the rear wheels instead? // Liftarn

No, in general. The torque around the steering axis generates a force in the tie rod, and because the steering system is not rigid, that generates a steer angle in the wheel, so the car turns. With a rear suspension the steering system is much more rigid. If that explanation does not tie up with this article, well, that is sad, this article is pretty bad. Greglocock 20:46, 13 January 2007 (UTC)
Ok, now I see, but I have no idea how to incorporate this in the article. // Liftarn
You raised a perfectly good question, but, I think, rather beyond an encyclopaedia. Put it this way, in the technical papers there is no generally applicable theory of torque steer. So, when you ask a good question, it is quite possible that there is no succinct answer. And I would love to see a detailed answer as well. In practice I just model it, but modelling things is much less efficient than analysing them. Greglocock 10:57, 15 January 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Open differential

I am a bit confused by this statement: "The open differential cannot fairly distribute torque between the two driveshafts, the power may be transmitted to only one driveshaft." How can an open diferential apply more torque to one driveshaft than to the other? The power can certainly be different when one wheel is spinning faster than the other, but I fail to see how one side could receive more torque than the other. Aij 22:26, 19 May 2007 (UTC)


I think, that in reality, the torque distribution really IS equal, the problem is that there is very little torque going into the differential in the first place. If you go WOT in an attempt to feed the diff lots of torque, the wheel with very little traction will spin up, hence the speed of the diff, driveshaft, transmission, will all have to speed up to match it. The angular inertia of these components will suck all the torque out of the drivetrain. That was a good slang-filled physics explanation. Doesn't happen often. Keep in mind, I have no sources for that except my own reasoning. Nereth (talk) 15:55, 15 December 2007 (UTC)

The basic premise of whole article is wrong Torque Steer is generated by the drive reaction couples within the CV joint acting at different distances from the road wheels (virtual) steering axis when viewed in front elevation, Using equal length drive shafts minimizes the over all effects of torque steer because the left and right drive shafts enter their respective outer CV joints at mirror image angles and the torquesteer generated by each wheel should be equal and opposite and therefore cancel out. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 78.86.101.67 (talk) 19:26, 10 June 2008 (UTC)



The whole article is almost 100% wrong obviously the original was written by someone with no knowledge of mechanical engineering mechancs and has spent a lot of time reading reading poorly researched articles in US car magazines awm