Talk:Status of Forces Agreement

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Could someone verify the following is true regarding Korean Law?

From the article:

This prompted widespread protests across Korea, demanding that the soldiers be retried in a Korean court, where murder is defined as simply causing the death of a Korean citizen without regard to the presence or absence of motive or negligence, quite different than the definition under U.S. law.

Is there really no distinction with respect to negligence? This particular example makes it sound like there is a distinction. http://query.nytimes.com/gst/fullpage.html?res=9B03E5D71738F935A25756C0A967948260&n=Top%2fNews%2fInternational%2fCountries%20and%20Territories%2fSouth%20Korea ― —Preceding unsigned comment added by 68.184.115.81 (talk • contribs) 2006-02-28T16:11:01

This is long overdue (especially because the section has already been removed), but just for the record/future reference, there does exist a distinction between murder (살인 sarin) and manslaughter (과실치사 gwashilchisa) in Korean law. ― blue-kun 00:35, 28 April 2007 (UTC)

One host country where such sentiment is widespread, South Korea, itself has forces in Kyrgyzstan How on Earth did South Korea end up with soldiers in Kyrgyzstan of all places? Nik42 09:28, 24 May 2007 (UTC)