Talk:Punitive damages

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This article could really use some work.

Surely a law prof/student out there can add considerably to this ... LeoTrottier 03:06, 25 October 2006 (UTC)

I don't necessarily disagree, but I also don't think there's much more to be said. It's a somewhat basic legal term, and it is well-defined by this (albeit short) article. I fear that further exposition would rely too heavily on talk of specific cases, whereas I'd prefer, in this case, a more generalized article. -- Kicking222 21:06, 28 November 2006 (UTC)

[edit] Why do they go to the plantiff?

Why do punative damages go to the plantiff? It seems it would make more sense to award them to the public at large, perhaps by contributing them to the government's general budget or some kind of special fund. I'd be interested to hear the typical legal stances on both sides of this issue. --Mike Schiraldi 22:56, 23 March 2007 (UTC)

This is a well-known criticism of the civil justice system of the U.S. as it pomotes 'sue culture'. However the UK can also be heavily criticised that in some cases (e.g. Surrey County Council v Bredero Homes [1993] 1 WLR 1361) whereby a calculated breach of obligation can profit in the long run as there are no punitive damages. On the surface, the most just awy would be for punitive damages to be paid to the court - the situation under Scots law. Bamkin 11:16, 2 June 2007 (UTC)

Efficient breach is bad? 69.253.222.184 (talk) 00:49, 27 April 2008 (UTC)

[edit] egregiously invidious

From the abstract of this article: "Because they usually compensate the plaintiff in excess of the plaintiff's provable injuries, punitive damages are awarded only in special cases, usually under tort law, where the defendant's conduct was egregiously invidious. "

Egregiously invidious? Surely someone can write this in plainer words.

wikt:egregious and wikt:invidious. Admiral Norton 19:49, 30 October 2007 (UTC)