Talk:Proof by example
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[edit] Valid proof?
I'm confused here. Proof by example isn't always fallacious. For example, suppose we have the property "Some P implies Q". To prove this, it suffices to give an example of a P that does imply Q. This is proof by example. Any statement that has the form "There is some x that has property P" can be proved by example. This article, however, only deals with the incorrect application of this otherwise valid proof. Should this be corrected? --BennyD (talk) 16:55, 24 November 2007 (UTC)
I think it should. It's merely a logical fallacy to use an example for "all X are Y", not at all for "some X are Y". --134.130.117.172 (talk) 13:46, 15 March 2008 (UTC)
