Talk:Mark (money)

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after the Norman Conquest equalled 160 pennies = 2/3 of the pound sterling, or 13s. 4d., and therefore in Scotland 31/2d. English. Question: By the latter figure does the writer mean, £1, 11s 2d or threepence and a hapenny? (somebody might have transposed something) -- knoodelhed 11:11, 20 Nov 2003 (UTC)

Thr'pence ha'penny (3.5d) seems less likely that £1 11s 2d, if it was 13s 4d in England. What's the discrepancy between English and Scottish values, though? Some explanation could be good; the discrepancy looks odd to me and I'm a Brit with a relatively good understanding of British history, I'd assume a non-Brit would get rather confused! — OwenBlacker 12:33, Jun 22, 2004 (UTC)
Around the time of the Union, the exchange rate was 1 shilling Scots = 1 penny English. -- Arwel 16:39, 22 Jun 2004 (UTC)
Goodness, really?! When (and how) did parity come into force? That's something that should definitely be included in Wikipedia somewhere... :o)  OwenBlacker 16:43, Jun 22, 2004 (UTC)

Contents

[edit] Money or English money?

I am about to try moving the article from Mark (English money) to Mark (money). As defined by the article itself the mark was also Scottish and European. Laurel Bush 12:02, 3 Mar 2005 (UTC).

If a mark was not a coin why did the Domesday Book say 10 1/2 silver marks paid to king for Chester? Gordon Emery

[edit] Non-teutonic

Are you sure "mark" is non-teutonic, I heard it might have come from the usage of "marking" a measure.

I suspect mark as money is closely related to hallmark and the idea that you should be able to trust a piece of metal as money if it is struck with a reputable mark or brand. Many metal alloys are struck now with the mark or marks of the Royal Mint. Laurel Bush 15:01, 8 Apr 2005 (UTC).

[edit] Merge?

[edit] Text removal

I'm taking out of the introduction the sentence: The most valuable Mark were printed in 1908, today they would be worth up to $55 million U.S. a piece. It's completely unexplained what it's supposed to mean, apart from being nonsense. I suspect someone used the final conversion rate of the Deutsche Mark to convert prehyperinflation currency, ignoring the fact that they're completely separate currencies. -- Arwel (talk) 01:02, 14 December 2007 (UTC)