Talk:List of Spaniards
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[edit] Richest man and "best" football player
There are two Galicians that should be in the list: Spain's richest man and in 2007 the 8th richest man in the world: Amancio Ortega and the unique spanish golden ball in history: Luis Suárez Miramontes
Just for the Record Selena and Gloria Estefan are no Spaniards! Selena was a Tex- Mex and Gloria is a Cuban. Also just for the record...one of the greatest Stars in America was herself a Spaniard.."RITA HAYWORTH" who's real name was Margarita Cansino.
- Rita had Spanish parents but she was born in the US. I don't know if that cuts it. Mike H 16:05, Aug 27, 2004 (UTC)
Deleted David Bisbal (born 1979) from Singers. In fact, he is a singer and yes, he is a spainard, but I think he has no relevance despite his celebrity. That is because David Bisbal is a TV contestant from Operación Triunfo show (an American Idol look-alike show). So, compared with Montserrat Caballé, Plácido Domingo or Julio Iglesias, for example, he has little relevance.
What about to add Xavier Cugat to Musicians?
[edit] Don Pelayo a spaniard?
I would like everybody to consider if all the people died prior to 1516 (Formal unification of Spain) may be consider spaniards. I really don't think Don Pelayo ever thought of a unified Spain rather than to protect and defend his Astur Kingdom. The Trajan case is even worst... Does someone even doubt he would have himself be called ROMAN? Shouldn't all these people be erased from this page, or at least be specified their contemporary homeland? (e.g. Don Pelayo - Asturias; Trajan - Hispania). Regards, Maurice27 20:50, 18 February 2007 (UTC)
- You're right. But it happens the same in other lists. E.g. Lautaro is "Chilean", Atahualpa is "Peruvian", Moctezuma II is "Mexican", Abd-el-latif is "Iraqi", Al-Idrisi is "Moroccan", etc. Anyway, we can adopt the "Belgian solution" :). --Zaqarbal 00:50, 20 February 2007 (UTC)
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- Well, that means there's a lot of work to do... ;) Maurice27 02:33, 25 February 2007 (UTC)
- I think Zaqarbal already found the right solution. As he points out, the "Belgian solution" seems a clever and accurate way of solving it. -- · Ravenloft · · (talk) · 14:39, 25 February 2007 (UTC)
- And why consider 1516 the date for that 'formal unification'? As it is very well stated in the article about Spain, that is the date of the 'dynastic union', which means two of the main Crowns in the peninsula were ruled by the same king. But people from the neighbor Crown were still seen as foreigners in the other Crown, that is why some historians call that Habsburg period the Hispanic Monarchy, rather than Spanish. The actual unification of Spain is the result of the War of Succession, where the territories of the Aragonese Crown were conquered and their laws abolished, thus adopting the Castilian ones for the whole territory and making Castilian (i.e., Spanish) the language of the whole country. Yet it is also a de facto unification. It isn't until the First Constitution in 1812 that a de jure unification is achieved, and all people living in the whole territory are legally seen as Spaniards. So as you see, interpretations vary a lot, and the truth is that all people born prior to the 18th century are Spaniards just from a vague and rather geographical point of view, not quite political (they were Castilians, Aragonese or Navarrese). Purplefire 19:33, 24 April 2007 (UTC)
- That was in 1469 (Castile and Aragon). in 1516 Navarre was the last kingdom to unify to what is now called spain. No more territories did since then (apart those of the colonies). That's the reason for me to use that date. Anyway, I already applied to "belgian solution" some time ago. Cheers. --Maurice27 07:54, 25 April 2007 (UTC)
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- I agree with the 'Belgian solution', although I think that the same problem will arise when it comes to decide whether one name should be italicized or not. As I said, I personally don't think that anyone before 1812 could properly be called 'Spanish citizen'. And the sentence "were Belgian (i.e., Spanish) citizens during at least one period of their life" could perfectly be applied to, say, people born in Cuba before 1898 (Cuba was considered as Spanish then as the Canary Islands are now). So should we include then the Cuban national hero José Martí as a Spaniard, as indeed he was? Wasn't he more 'Spanish', from an ethnic point of view, than Seneca or Averroes, both born in Cordoba? --Purplefire 16:57, 25 April 2007 (UTC)
[edit] Poets & writers
Manuel machado (brother of Antonio) is too a referent in spanish literature. And so franciso umbral. I think this list is too incomplete. Don't use wikipedia. I encourage somebody to add this names, pls.—Preceding unsigned comment added by 87.219.58.250 (talk) 20:23, 18 October 2007 (UTC)
