Talk:Interword separation

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It was the Romans, not the Greeks, who used interpuncts.

I augmented the history a bit.

Ducky

According to Daniels&Bright's _The World's Writing Systems_, Ethiopic is a better term than Amharic. Amharic and Geez are written with the same script (originally used for Ge'ez).

It isn't clear if Ethiopic always (since 400 AD) had interword separation, or if that's something that appeared more recently.

Ducky

Well, _The World's Writing Systems_, edited by Daniels & Bright (and a fine book!) implies that Phoenician at one point used slashes and dots and that Hebrew and Aramaic did; plus Aramaic also used spaces.

There's a picture in Daniels & Bright of a 440 BCE manuscript in Hebrew that clearly shows spaces between the words.

Ducky

I've often heard that Charlemagne was mostly responsible for the introduction and use of the space (punctuation) in European languages, although I don't have direct confirmation of this. Something that might be looked into, as the article needs expanding at the end. --G Gordon Worley III 14:05, 29 Jun 2004 (UTC)

I once heard someone say, "Theoretically there are no spaces in Thai, but I prefer to believe that they're there [in handwriting], because it's easier to read that way." —Tamfang 05:39, 21 October 2006 (UTC)

Thai, and, I believe, Khmer, are special cases with regard to spaces: if my understanding is correct, spaces are used to indicate divisions between phrases, and not sentences. Omniglot says: "There are no spaces between words, instead spaces in a Thai text indicate the end of a clause or sentence." AncientScripts.com has: "There is no space or any kind of separator between words, so all the words in a sentence form one long block of letters. The only division, a space, occurs between sentences or phrases." I'm going to go ahead and add a mention of this to the article, but further citations would be welcome. --babbage 09:55, 17 December 2006 (UTC)