Talk:Inequality of arithmetic and geometric means
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umm, in the polya proof, the meaning of mu and rho are not given —Preceding unsigned comment added by 128.36.86.60 (talk • contribs)
- But they are, in the second paragraph, where it says:
-
- Let μ be the arithmetic mean, and let ρ be the geometric mean.
- Michael Hardy 22:07, 11 December 2006 (UTC)
[edit] Proof by induction
Perhaps I'm just being slow today, but isn't the proof by induction section somewhat lacking?
- Why are we "done if we show that the product
is less than one"? - Where is the proof that this is "obviously true"?
- Even if this proof is correct, doesn't it only cover the case when
?
Oli Filth 14:52, 1 July 2007 (UTC)
- I numbered your questions so that my answers will correspond with them; hope you don't mind.
- If
for all a,b then
. - Hmm, I have to think a bit about this one. It's not obvious to me; it needs some hypothesis on xa and xb. At first sight, this seems to be a potentially serious gap in the proof.
- No, that's what the business of dividing by p is about.
- If
- It's a bit terse, I know, but if point 2 is not resolved then the whole proof is wrong. I need another look (little time now). -- Jitse Niesen (talk) 08:30, 8 July 2007 (UTC)
-
- Thanks for looking into this. Here are my followup remarks:
- I see. But in that case, why is it necessary to do the substitution stuff?
- ...
Ah, I finally see what that division is trying to achieve. It would be much clearer if the proof was written in terms of, say,
, where yi = pxi. I'll make this change.
- Oli Filth 10:22, 8 July 2007 (UTC)
- Thanks for looking into this. Here are my followup remarks:
-
-
- On second thought, I'm still not convinced about this! How do we get from:
-
-
-
-
- to
- in the general case (where
)? Oli Filth 10:30, 8 July 2007 (UTC)
-
-
[edit] Details for points 2 and 3
To point 2: First observe that
since
.
In the proof we found already
By the induction hypothesis one gets
.
Multiplying by
gives
which completes the proof of the lemma.
To point 3: Let ui be arbitrary positive values. Define
and
Then
By the proved lemma one has
,
which is equivalent to
. --NeoUrfahraner 11:01, 12 July 2007 (UTC)
I introduced the proof again in a corrected version - I hope you agree. --NeoUrfahraner 21:15, 16 July 2007 (UTC)
- Looks fine to me. Thanks for the clarification. -- Jitse Niesen (talk) 04:15, 23 July 2007 (UTC)
[edit] proof by Newman
pf:
- 1st step: if AM-Gm holds for all nonnegative numbers such that its product is 1, then it holds for all nonnegative numbers.
- 2nd step: show that AM-GM holds for all nonnegative numbers such that its product it 1, by first showing that its sum is greater than ()
- third step show
- ok, i seriously need someone to tell me how do you type mathematics on internet
21:20, 26 August 2007 (UTC)21:20, 26 August 2007 (UTC)~~
- You mean this?
implies 
- The proof can be found in de:Ungleichung vom arithmetischen und geometrischen Mittel and is essentially the same as the proof for
implies 
- that you find in this article. Have you any source that this proof is actually from Max Newman? --NeoUrfahraner 10:34, 5 September 2007 (UTC)
Yes, I think that's it. There are at least five different proofs of this inequality out there, at least I know five. I am not sure if this particular one can be attributed to whom. I am not even sure if we are talking about the same Newman! —Preceding unsigned comment added by 128.226.170.133 (talk • contribs)
![\ \sqrt[n]{x_1 \cdot x_2 \cdots x_n} \leq \frac{x_1 + x_2 + \cdots + x_n}{n}](../../../../math/f/1/2/f126c7f703a62879cdf5b4278b21745a.png)







